I got this definition from the internet:
The issue I have is with this part:
Truncated, it says: "Sexism is discrimination based on a person's gender, especially women."
Is this not a case of sexism within the definition of sexism? To suggest you cannot discriminate between the genders and then immediately following that, discriminate between the genders, well, it begs the question!
Do you think this definition of sexism is a case of sexism?
[Additional thought: You cannot differentiate between the sexes in the UK for car insurance, despite the risk profiles being different for each gender. Some drivers are more likely to have an accident, especially men. Yet European law has essentially said you can no longer have this sexist distinction. So why is it ok for the EU to remove considering the risk being higher for men for car insurance (in the name of sexism), yet the definition of sexism itself includes the risk being higher for women?]
"Sexism is prejudice or discrimination based on a person's sex or gender. Sexism can affect anyone, but it primarily affects women and girls."
but it primarily affects women and girls."
Is this not a case of sexism within the definition of sexism? To suggest you cannot discriminate between the genders and then immediately following that, discriminate between the genders, well, it begs the question!
Do you think this definition of sexism is a case of sexism?
[Additional thought: You cannot differentiate between the sexes in the UK for car insurance, despite the risk profiles being different for each gender. Some drivers are more likely to have an accident, especially men. Yet European law has essentially said you can no longer have this sexist distinction. So why is it ok for the EU to remove considering the risk being higher for men for car insurance (in the name of sexism), yet the definition of sexism itself includes the risk being higher for women?]
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